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Anand Sharma

02-Dec-2013 , 02:09:43 pm

Any payment as loans and advances made by any CLOSELY HELD COMPANY (i.e. private company)to any CONCERN (including any COMPANY)in which a shareholder, holding 10% or more equity shares in the first mentioned private company, is also holding substantial interest (i.e. 20% or more voting rights)in the said concern shall be deemed dividend to the extent of accumulated profits. What you have to check is that - the loan and advance is paid by a private company - the same is paid to a company in which a shareholder is a member having 20% or more voting rights (or equity shares) - the same shareholder is also holding 10% or more equity shares in the said private company. - deemed dividend amount cannot exceed accumulated profits of the private company. FYI directors are not covered in 2(22)(e). For further info click on the following link http://canirmalg.wordpress.com/2010/02/02/deemedividend/

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Devendra Ranka

02-Dec-2013 , 02:45:33 pm

Thanks for your Reply... But I want to Know that if Shareholder(holding 20 % or more) has given loan TO The Company and Company REPAY such Loan amount to Shareholders with Interest. weather REPAYMENT of loans & advances to Shareholders will be taxable as Deemed Dividend in the hand of shareholders.

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Anand Sharma

03-Dec-2013 , 04:33:01 pm

No, in that case deemed dividend u/s 2(22)(e) would not get attracted. Loan given by a shareholder is termed as a loan received in ordinary course of business by the company. The logic behind deeming fiction u/s 2(22)(e) is that the company should be prevented from giving dividend to shareholders in any form other than dividend if the company has accumulated profits in its books. If a shareholder gives loan to the company and the same is repaid by the company then it would be covered as a ordinary business transaction. But regard has to be given to the amount of interest on such loan. Such interest should not be more than the fair amount of interest applicable in the market on the same amount of loan and for the same tenure. Any payment of interest which is more than the above shall be chargeable to tax u/s 40A(2)

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Devendra Ranka

04-Dec-2013 , 11:06:28 am

Thanks Anand ji, My Query Almost Solved, but I want to confirm Follwing points :- If Outstanding Loan from Shareholders( any CONCERN) on Specific Date is 100 Lakhs and Company has REPAY 120 Lakhs (not for Interest). 1) Then Deemed will be applicable or not ? 2) On which Amount 20 lakhs or 120 Lakhs ? Note :- Company has further taken Loan of 150 lakhs after above specific date and company will pay Interest calculated on Daily Outstanding at the END OF THE YEAR.

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Anand Sharma

04-Dec-2013 , 07:04:24 pm

(1) Yes, section 2(22)(e) shall attract. (2) On Rs 20 Lacs only if the company has accumulated profits. If the company has paid Rs 20 lacs as part repayment of Rs 150 lacs of further loan then Rs 20 lacs will not be treated as deemed dividend. Method of calculation of Interest payment has no bearing on deemed dividend provisions. What has to be checked is that rate of interest and method of calculation is as per market norms. If ROI exceeds market interest the disallowed u/s 40A(2)

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SUBHASH KUMAR JHA

07-Dec-2013 , 10:59:23 am

yes. Mr.X is benificial owner of XYZ Ltd.and director in ABC Ltd. now if ABC Ltd.will provide loans & Advances to Mr.x then it will be taxable under the head other source to Mr.x if ABC Ltd.will provide loans & Advances to XYZ Ltd. then it will be taxable under the head other source to XYZ Ltd. in this case company need to deduct TDS u/s 194 @ 10%

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Devendra Ranka

10-Dec-2013 , 12:51:01 pm

whether Balance of Reserve & surplus ( General Reserve & profit & loss a/c only) as on last balance sheet date will consider as accumulated profit for the purpose of Sec 2(22)(e). Profit for the year upto the date of Loans & Advances or for the whole financial year will consider as Accumulated Profit for the purpose of Sec 2922)(e).